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It is not the case that when we experience 'conversion', that is the moment when Christ stands up from the right hand throne, and bears the punishment for us, so that at that moment we might become united. Clearly then, something exists relationally between the sinner and Christ prior to 'union'. Now I am fine with saying that it is by union that we apprehend/connect/receive the benefits of that prior relation, but Tipton, et al. seem to have a problem with that. So again it must be asked, what is it they are really trying to obtain through this approach? Are they denying the covanent of redemption, is that what this is about? Or are they just concerned that something in the alternative formulation gives the church too much license to sin?

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